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Study Question
1) One question is the one mentioned in the footnote: why would hatra'ah apply here in the case of Divine punishment? A warning ensures the court that the sinner knew that his/her activity was against the Torah law, i.e. a sin. God would know this in any event, so why the warning in this case? A possibility is that a warning also informs the individual that the intended behaviour is a sin -- thus the warning before sin actually is intended also to possibly prevent the sin. Was that the case here? Or could we say, in this case, it was simply intended to inform Pharaoh of the law, one of which he may not have known?
2) We postulated a possible sin for Pharaoh in rejecting "specific aspects of the knowledge of God." Can there be a sin in not knowing something?
Friday, January 18, 2013
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I wouldn't say there was a sin in not knowing something per se. But I do think there is sin in wilful ignorance, deliberately choosing not to know something, possibly especially if that something is being presented by an authoritative source.
ReplyDeleteI also think there is venial or passive sin in not really bothering to make the effort to learn things or find them out.
I totally agree. The environment in which ignorance exists is clearly a factor in its moral responsibility. In the case of Pharaoh, the moral responsibility is clearly there for he was even being presented with knowledge that would explain everything which he continued to reject.
ReplyDeleteRBH